could you translate this into laymans terms?

MRI report

In the distal calf, the posterior tibial tendon is degenerated with fluid distention of the sheath. Inferior to the medial malleous, the tendon is enlarged, markedly hyperintense and remodeled with profound degeneration of the remnant at the navicular attachment. The long medial flexor tendons are intact. The achillese tendon is intact. The is however scarring of the pre-achillese fat with an edema pattern tethering to the pre achillese and superior retinacula. The cartlidge over the hindfoot is degenerated. Hindfoot valgus is noted. The talonavicular joint is notable for dorsal capsular thickening. There is no disproportionate midfoot arthrosishe

The supermedial fibers of the spring ligament are present but degenerated and thickened. The inferior fibers of the spring ligament are encased in hypertrophic scar and appear chronically disrupted

Thank you

[FootDoc]

In my view, this is total word-salad by the radiologist, ostensibly for the purpose of justifying his/her evaluation of the study. The writer seems to go to great lengths to be obtuse. It gives me no real clue as to what the purpose of the examination might have been, and I firmly believe that high-tech studies or ANY lab test should be predicated on a possible diagnosis to either rule in or out. I would suggest that the report was about as valuable to the clinician who ordered it as it is to you. I find it particularly interesting, as I assume you copied the report word for word and letter for letter, that "Achilles" is twice spelled (thus assuring that it was not a mere typo) as "achillese," and what I suspect was to be "arthroses," "arthrosishe." Ask your doctor what he got from this report.

The first paragraph stated that clinical concern is the integrety of the posterior tibial tendon and spring ligament in a patient with a flat foot